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Chris3jam
01-20-2007, 01:31 PM
This is what *I* want to know. . . .how and when did the link between the "rod" verses in the Bible and disciplining children happen? What caused this link between the Bible and spanking? According to many, it's always been there and the rod verses (and Hebrews and others) have always borne up the fact that God tells us to use spanking and/or other corporal punishment in the disciplining of children (they also believe that God uses corporal punishment when dealing with us). When/where/how was this link established? All the talk of secular/religious history is *not* going to make *anyone* who believe the Bible commands spanking to think twice about it. They are *adamant* about their 'translation' of the rod verses. . . and cite aaallll the great preachers and leaders that believe it and preach it, too. They are just as adamant about that as they are about God's great love for us.

Hermana Linda
01-20-2007, 02:43 PM
:scratch That's a good question.

CelticJourney
01-20-2007, 08:45 PM
My first best guess would be the King James Version. I would be interested in what the interpretion from Latin would be for that verse.

Chris3jam
01-20-2007, 08:58 PM
So, would I have to go to the Latin Vulgate? Are you saying that the prejudice of the time had them picking the word they thought should go in there? But . . what about the Hebrew words?

ArmsOfLove
01-20-2007, 09:02 PM
I guess I don't understand the question.

discipline, in the Hebraic mind, is teaching
child, in the Hebrew, with na'ar, means a young adolescent
chasten, in the Hebrew, is "come let us reason together"

the Rabbinical discussions go back a long time on this. I guess I need to go dig up links

But preachers have talked about beating children--not spanking--for years--back to Victorian/Puritan times. These times were really harsh :shrug They beat children, slaves, etc. The other discussion is about when the sexual practice of spanking became equated with the rod verses. When the church inserted "spanking" for "rod"

ArmsOfLove
01-20-2007, 09:40 PM
http://www.theawarenesscenter.org/rabbinicalresources.html#Dratch
http://www.jpost.com/servlet/Satellite?pagename=JPost%2FJPArticle%2FShowFull&cid=1167467704873
from my history of spanking article According to Eliezer C. Abrahamson, Talmud Torah Center for Basic Jewish Education, Lakewood, “The Talmud teaches us that a father who strikes an older son is to be excommunicated. Jewish legal authorities inform us that while this law only mentions an older child, it is actually true of any child who might possibly react improperly.” (Bergen Record, Hackensack, New Jersey, 7 December 2000; Should parents spare rod when punishing kids?; Lisa Haddock Staff Writer )

http://www.askmoses.com/article.html?h=637&o=1972023
http://www.askmoses.com/article.html?h=637&o=1959140

and I think www.jewishagency.org/JewishAgency/English/Jewish%2BEducation/Jewish%2BTime/Jewish%2BSources/child/week%2B11.htm+Rabbis+Proverbs+Rod&hl=en&gl=us&ct=clnk&cd=6&client=firefox-a]this (http://72.14.253.104/search?q=cache:6YRgDmpvqmYJ:[url) is an excellent article summing up lots of things

CelticJourney
01-21-2007, 06:02 AM
Are you saying that the prejudice of the time had them picking the word they thought should go in there?

That is my 'best guess'.

Not a morning person, so not thinking clearly. Cyrstal, are you saying that I'm on the right track by saying the 'switch over' happened when Christians started relying on English translations (ie KJV) over the original language texts? Or are you saying something different?

Katherine
01-21-2007, 09:59 PM
I'm no expert on the history of translations, but I seem to remember at some point (maybe even in a discussion here) realizing that there was a critical shift as far back as the Geneva Bible. :think And I don't mean to say that the translations were wrong, but rather that some depth and clarity of meaning was lost in the move from one language to another.